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NEW QUESTION: 1
An examination of the relationship between performance and the expense ratio indicated that ________.
A. good performance was associated with high expense ratios
B. good performance was associated with low expense ratios
C. there was no association between performance and expense ratios
D. bad performance was associated with low expense ratios
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
An examination of the relationship between performance and the expense ratio indicated that good performance was associated with low expense ratios; in one way, it is because management expense is money not invested in the portfolio of shares and/or bonds. Expense is necessary however when one needs to shift to better performing stocks according to market changes.

NEW QUESTION: 2
Which of the following formulae describes CVA (Credit Valuation Adjustment)? All acronyms have their usual meanings (LGD=Loss Given Default, ENE=Expected Negative Exposure, EE=Expected Exposure, PD=Probability of Default, EPE=Expected Positive Exposure, PFE=Potential Future Exposure)
A. LGD * PFE * PD
B. LGD * ENE * PD
C. LGD * EPE * PD
D. LGD * EE * PD
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
The correct definition of CVA is LGD * EPE * PD. All other answers are incorrect.
CVA reflects the adjustment for counterparty default on derivative and other trading book transactions. This reflects the credit charge, that neeeds to be reduced from the expected value of the transaction to determine its true value. It is calculated as a product of the loss given default, the probability of default and the average weighted exposure of future EPEs across the time horizon for the transaction.
The future exposures need to be discounted to the present, and occasionally the equations for CVA will state that explicitly. Similarly, in some more advanced dynamic models the correlation between EPE and PD is also accounted for. The conceptual ideal though remains the same: CVA=LGD*EPE*PD.